150m
(c)UW
56.25%
8+1=9
9+2=11
11+3=14
14+4=18
18+5=23
and finally
23+6=29
– While the train is moving, the jogger will also be running in the same direction.
– for the head(engine) of the train to get to the current position of the jogger 240m away, it will take:
45km/hr => 12.5m/s => 240/12.5 = 19.2 seconds.
– But in the same period of time, the jogger will still be running and will have moved to a new location by: 9km/hr => 2.5m/s => 2.5 * 19.2 = 48m
To get to the new location at the speed of 12.5m/s will take the train:
48/12.5 = 3.84sec
In this additional time, the jogger will move forward by:
3.84 * 2.5 = 9.6m
at a speed of 12.5m/s, it will take the train less than a second to cover the additional 9.6m
If we add the distance the jogger will cover in 1 second to 9.6, it is still less than what the train can cover per second. let us see (9.6 + 2.5 = 12.1)
Therefore, the head of the train will pass the runner at approximately: 19.2 + 3.84 + 1 => 24.04 seconds.
For the train to completely pass the runner, it will need its whole length of 120m to be in front of the runner.
This will take an additional (9.6 + 2) seconds.
Therefore for the length of the train to be ahead of the runner it will take approx. 35.65 (24.04 + 9.6 + 2) seconds
Answer: 1 / 3
Lets say each brand had 16 laptops
So Sold : A = 3 , B= 1 and C = 12 , total sold: 16 ,
Since each brand has 16 , total = 48
so 16/ 48 = 1/3 is the sold fraction
consider the tank capacity as 90 litres.
to fill the tank in 3 hrs first pipe must flow at a rate of 30 litres/hr
2nd pipe has to flow at a rate of 45 litres/hr
if two pipes are opened at a time the flow rate will become 75 litres/hr
90/75= 6/5 = 1.2= (i.e) 1hr and 12 minutes 1 1/5 hr
TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT, how would DULLARD ?
T value is 19
V value is 21 ,
here we get to know that there is difference of 1 letter between them.
Answer: FWNNCTF.
75/8 days
1*2=2
2*2=4
2*4=8
8*4=32
Ans : 32
obvious
e^(i*pi) + 1 = 0
Explanation:
The number of ways of selecting three men, two women and three children is:
= ⁴C₃ * ⁶C₂ * ⁵C₃
= (4 * 3 * 2)/(3 * 2 * 1) * (6 * 5)/(2 * 1) * (5 * 4 * 3)/(3 * 2 * 1)
= 4 * 15 * 10
= 600 ways.
Let’s say,
I have x coins of 50 paise and (80-x) coins of 100 paise,so the equation is like this ,
50x + (80-x)*100 = 64*100
x = 32
So ,I have 32 coins of 50 paise
9 and 16
1208.9