Kinder morgan Interview Questions, Process, and Tips

(x**2 – 6* x + 5) = (x-1)*(x-5)
(x**2 + 2 * x + 1) = (x + 1) * (x+1) = (x+1)**2
For what x is (x-1)*(x-5)/( (x+1)**2) a minimum?
One way to answer this question is by using calculus.
Take the derivative, and set to zero.
Since this is a fraction of polynomials, and a fraction is
zero only if it’s numerator is zero, we need calculate only
the numerator of the derivative and set it to zero.
The numerator of the
Derivative of (x-1)*(x-5)/( (x+1)**2) is
( (x-1) + (x-5) ) ( x+1)**2 – (x-1)(x-5)( 2 (x+1) )
= (2 x – 6) (x+1)**2 – (2) (x-1)(x-5) (x+1)
= 0
Divide through by 2 (x+1)
(x-3)(x+1) – (x-1)(x-5) = 0
(x**2 – 2 x – 3 ) – (x**2 – 6 x + 5) = 0
x**2 – x**2 – 2 x + 6 x – 3 – 5 = 0
4 x – 8 = 0
x = 2
Plugging in x = 2 into the original
(x**2-6*x+5)/(x**2+2*x+1)
gives us (2**2 – 6 * 2 + 5)/(2**2 + 2*2 + 1)
= (4 – 12 + 5) / (4 + 4 + 1) = -3/9 = -1/3
Least value is -1/3

Example 1:
Assign, A=20, B=10, C=5, D=5(Because C is equal to D as
given), E=1.
A/B = 20/10 = 2. So A/B = 2
A/C = 20/5 = 4. So A/C = 4
A/E = 20/1 = 20. So A/E = 20
Therefore “A/E is Greatest”
Example 2:
Assign, A=100, B=50, C=20, D=20(Because C is equal to D as
given), E=10.
A/B = 100/50 = 2. So A/B = 2
A/C = 100/20 = 5. So A/C = 5
A/E = 100/10 = 10. So A/E = 10
Therefore “A/E is Greatest”

16

Let Suvarna, Tara, Uma and Vibha be S,T,U,V respectively
initially in the beginning each persons share be
V = x U = y T = z
S = w = (x+y+z+32) Reason: She has to double others share, so she should have each and everyone’s share and still should be left out with 32

after 1st Round of game
S loses and is out with 32 and doubles the others share
V = 2x U = 2y T = 2z

After 2nd Round of game
T loses and is out with 32 and doubles the others share
V = 4x U = 4y
This means T had 2z = 2x + 2y + 32
After 3rd round of game
U looses and is out with 32 and doubles others share
V = 8x
This means U initially has 4y = 4x + 32
In the end V = 8x = 32

Solving this we get x = 4, y = 12, z = 32 and w = 80
There fore Suvarna had highest share in the beginning

All books can be arranged in 10! ways. A single pair of books can be taken as a unit and arranged among the 8 others in 9! ways. The pair of books can also be interchanged and therefore rearranged in 2! ways. Thus the probability of the pair always being together is (9!*2!)/10!

4/52 * 3/51

2years

ans=13.33
solution: (710/12)*8 – 460

36

= (1 * 5! * 2!) * 3 + ( 2! * 5 ! * 1) * 3 + ( 3! * 5! ) + ( 5! * 3! )

list price – actual price markrd by the company
net price (average price of all items inclusive all discounts,breakage & so on.) which is 425 i.e. 50% of the marked price
hence the list price or marked price is twice the net sale price = 850
50%=425
100%=?
=100%*425/50=850

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bank of calcutta originated in 1806
there is another answer such as
bank of hindustan

lcm (12,18,24,32,40) – 1
1440-1 = 1439

34000