Let the number of males be given the name M.
Let the number of females be given the name F.
If 15 females are absent, then M will be twice that of
present females.
This means that M = 2 * (F – 15)
M = 2 * F – 30.
or 2 * F – M = 30.
Now if in addition to the 15 females being absent, we also
have 45 males being absent,
then this gives the equation,
(F – 15) = 5 * (M – 45)
which simplifies to
F – 15 = 5 * M – 225
5 * M – F = 210
Pulling the equations together, we get
5 * M – F = 210
-M + 2 * F = 30
Multiply the first equation by 2, and keep the second
equation as is.
10 * M – 2 * F = 420
– M + 2 * F = 30
Add the equations.
9 * M = 450
M = 50
Verify answer.
Calculate F
from – M + 2 * F = 30
-50 + 2 * F = 30
2 * F = 30 + 50
F = 40.
If 15 females are absent, then number of males will be twice
that of females.
40 – 15 = 25.
50 = 2 * 25. Confirmed.
If also 45 males were absent, then female strength would be
5 times that of males.
Female strength is 25 due to the 15 females being absent.
50 – 45 = 5.
25 = 5 * 5. Confirmed.
Prob(choosing two people who are a couple from 6 couples) = 1/6
We have 5 couple left (10 people)
Prob(choosing a person A from 10 people) = 1/10
Prob(choosing 1 person who is not a couple of A) = 1/8
Prob(choosing 4 people that has exactly one couple) = 1/6*1/8*1/10 = 0.0021
Dear friends i ofcourse confused like you when i come
across to solve this problem. Really friends its very
simple if you understand the question clearly. First thing
is what is mean by “as many as” means its called ‘idiom and
phrase’ in english and it means “the same number of”. now
read the question “how many pairs of letters in STAINLESS
which has same number of letters between them in the word
as they have in english alphabet”.
In the alphabetical order, A-Z can be numbered as 1-26.
In A(INL)E which is same as in the alphabetical order A
(BCD)E. In both the cases E is in the Fourth position. so
we got one pair.
And in ST, there are no letters between them in the word
stainless. In alphabetical orer from A-Z also there is no
letters between them..so we got the second pair…
In STAINLESS it has two pairs ST and AE
20/- per day
So, if he work one day
So,1*20=20
1/3*20=20/3
2/3*20=40/3
1/8*20=5/2
3/4*20=15
so,
20+20/3+40/3+5/2+15=57.5
So ans is 57.5 is the ans
24.
exp: 0 is formed by multiplying 5 with 2. so first we find
how many 5’s and 2’s are there in 100!.
No of 5’s : 100/5=20/5=4/5.
20 +4 =24.
No of 2’s : 100/2=50/2=25/2=12/2=6/2=3/2=1/2.
50 +25 +12 +6 +3 +1.
It has 24 5’s and 2’s.
so the no. of zeros=24.
c
First we need to find out LCM of 2,3,5
that is 30,,,
then add 30 to 6 we get 36…
then divide it by 2 we get 18..
so 18 would be written interms of binay as 10010
means..Answer is
$**$*
24kmph
time taken = x/40 + 2x/20
=> x=8
so, 3x = 24
No sentence can end with because because, because is a conjunction
4.224 days