Ans-44
4x+8=6Y
5X=5Y
X=Y
FROM EQ 1
2X=8
X=4
6Y+5Y=11*4=44
Answer:
11 days.
Step-by-step explanation:
In the question,
Time taken by Ramesh to finish a piece of work = 20 days
Time taken by Sushil to finish a work = 25 days
Time for which they worked together = 5 days
Sushil left after = 5 days
So,
One day work of Ramesh is,
One day work of Sushil is,
So,
Work done in 5 days is given by,
Therefore, Remaining work is given by,
Now, as the Sushil left the remaining work was done by Ramesh,
Time taken by Ramesh for the remaining work is,
Therefore, the remaining work will be completed in 11 days by Ramesh.
Statements :
All pens are roads. All roads are houses.
Conclusions :
I. All houses are pens.
II. Some houses are pens.
A.
39 hrs 15 mins..
note:
he will not be having .45 mins for his lunch on saturday..
It is assumed to be constant. Now, to cross past the pole, the train should cover a distance of x meters. Now, the time taken by the train to cross a platform of length 100 m is 25 seconds. Hence, the length of the train is 150 m.
Rs. 1500
NON
9 years
Bcz 3×3=9
5×3=15
7×3=21
Total = 45
Avg of this 45/3 = 15
11
O
385, 462, 572, 396, 427, 671, 264
427 is the answer
Because
385 means (3+5=8) or (8-3=5) ,
462 means (4+2=6) or (6-2=4) ,
572 means (5+2=7) or (7-5=2) ,
396 means (6+3=9) or (9-3=6) ,
671 means (6+1=7) or (7-6=1) ,
264 means (4+2=6) or (6-2=4) ,
but only 427 is the number in which if we do addition of any of its two digits (e.g 4+2 or 4+7) then its answer doesn’t come 3rd digit
like if we do 4+2 then answer will be 6 so the number should be 426 but it is not
or if we do 7-4 then answer will be 3 (not 2)
so the right answer is 427
1/x
The definition of left and right depends on the observer and
is reversed when facing the opposite direction. The
definition of up and down does not depend on the orientation
of the observer.
I have seen a few say 25% as an answer to this. But looks
like their math isn’t good and is extremeley complex to
have an asnwer of 25% to this question. Consider – Rs.1.00/-
per mango; so 40 mangoes = Rs.40.00/-, implies Rs.4.00/-
extra at the end of the deal. So he’s left with Rs.44.00/-
after selling 40 mangoes implies a profit of Rs.4.00/- over
Rs.40.00 = 44/40 = 110% which means his profit is 10%.
Hope this helps…
Thanks.
2:3:4
( C ) Crawl