let x be lenghth of candles.
thicker one—- in 1 hr 1/6th will go.
thinner one— in 1 hr 1/4th will go.
let he lit for n hrs.
so in n hrs thicker one goes n/6.
and thinner one goes n/4.
so remainini length are x-n/6 and x-n/4.so x-n/6=2(x-n/4)
implie n=3x. if x=1 n=3hrs.
none of these
there will be 20 men
(x**2 – 6* x + 5) = (x-1)*(x-5)
(x**2 + 2 * x + 1) = (x + 1) * (x+1) = (x+1)**2
For what x is (x-1)*(x-5)/( (x+1)**2) a minimum?
One way to answer this question is by using calculus.
Take the derivative, and set to zero.
Since this is a fraction of polynomials, and a fraction is
zero only if it’s numerator is zero, we need calculate only
the numerator of the derivative and set it to zero.
The numerator of the
Derivative of (x-1)*(x-5)/( (x+1)**2) is
( (x-1) + (x-5) ) ( x+1)**2 – (x-1)(x-5)( 2 (x+1) )
= (2 x – 6) (x+1)**2 – (2) (x-1)(x-5) (x+1)
= 0
Divide through by 2 (x+1)
(x-3)(x+1) – (x-1)(x-5) = 0
(x**2 – 2 x – 3 ) – (x**2 – 6 x + 5) = 0
x**2 – x**2 – 2 x + 6 x – 3 – 5 = 0
4 x – 8 = 0
x = 2
Plugging in x = 2 into the original
(x**2-6*x+5)/(x**2+2*x+1)
gives us (2**2 – 6 * 2 + 5)/(2**2 + 2*2 + 1)
= (4 – 12 + 5) / (4 + 4 + 1) = -3/9 = -1/3
Least value is -1/3
0237
cost price(c.p) of one fruit = 24/16
(c.p) = Rs 1.50
selling price(s.p) of one fruit = 18/8
(s.p) =Rs 2.25
profit for one fruit = 2.25 – 1.50 = 0.75
profit
profit % = ———– * 100
cost price
0.75
= ——- * 100
1.50
= 50%
Take 5 pills from jar 1, 4 pills from jar2,…. and 1 pill
from jar 5 and put altogether in the scale. the ideal
weight should be (1+2+3+4+5)x10= 150gms. for eg if the jar2
is contaminated then the weight will be 146 gms. so
depending on the amount of weight loss we can identify the
contaminated jar.
P+C+M=80
P+C=70
Therefore M=10
Given , P+M=90
If M=10
P=80
( a ) 11
It’s choice A because you take the last to letters and move them to the front then the previous two letters go after them and so on.
copy cat
Suppose the lengthier arm of weighing pan is of x cm and other arm is y cm .Also let weight if each melon be m kg.
so applying equilibrium of torque principles ,we get
case 1:-
1x-8my=0
case 2:-
2mx-1y=0
using case 1 equation , we substitute value of x into case 2 equation;
16mmy-1y=0
(16mm-1)y=0
y is length of weighing arm and cannot be 0,
therefore ,
16mm-1 =0
16mm=1
mm=1/16
m= square root (1/16)
m=+-1/4
m is weight of melon and cant be negative.
Hence m, weight of one melon is 1/4 kg
540 meters or 0.54 km