Odisha Rural Housing & Development Interview Questions, Process, and Tips

China

let the 4 digit number be ABCD.
First Digit is A :
Therefore; according to the question
A=B/3
B=3A
C=A+B=A+3A=4A
D=3B=3(3A)=9A
Since the last Digit is D and it can neither be double-digit nor 0 ;
Therefore ;
A=1;
B=3A=3(1)=3
C=A+B=1+3=4
D=9A=9(1)=9
Therefore, the 4 digit number is 1349.

B

True

temp at 3.oo pm is = 22.5
temp at 6.oo pm is = 30
thus, percentage rise= 7.5/30 *100
=25%

The Answer is c

volume of a sphere is 4/3 * pi * r^3
by drilling a hole 6 inches long the volume of the sphere is
not affected bcos the hole is a 1 dimension quantity..(say a
straight line) n so it does not have any value w.r.t volume…
hence the volume of the sphere does not change..

0

– While the train is moving, the jogger will also be running in the same direction.
– for the head(engine) of the train to get to the current position of the jogger 240m away, it will take:
45km/hr => 12.5m/s => 240/12.5 = 19.2 seconds.

– But in the same period of time, the jogger will still be running and will have moved to a new location by: 9km/hr => 2.5m/s => 2.5 * 19.2 = 48m

To get to the new location at the speed of 12.5m/s will take the train:
48/12.5 = 3.84sec

In this additional time, the jogger will move forward by:
3.84 * 2.5 = 9.6m

at a speed of 12.5m/s, it will take the train less than a second to cover the additional 9.6m

If we add the distance the jogger will cover in 1 second to 9.6, it is still less than what the train can cover per second. let us see (9.6 + 2.5 = 12.1)

Therefore, the head of the train will pass the runner at approximately: 19.2 + 3.84 + 1 => 24.04 seconds.

For the train to completely pass the runner, it will need its whole length of 120m to be in front of the runner.

This will take an additional (9.6 + 2) seconds.

Therefore for the length of the train to be ahead of the runner it will take approx. 35.65 (24.04 + 9.6 + 2) seconds

28 Sec

C

Out of 800 cheques 100 are for data processing.
Out of 16000 cheques = (100/800)*16,000 = 2000 cheques

suppose
pipe:
A -30 hours A’s effeciency (60/30) =2
60( lcm of 30 and 20)
B- 20 hours B’s effeciency (60/20)=3

time taken by both to fill = 60/5 =12 as given in question (effeciencies of both a+b =2+3=5)
time taken by faster pipe i.e b = 60/3 =20

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